Marriage

>>By all means marry. If you get a good wife, you'll be happy. If you get a bad one, you'll become a philosopher. - Socrates

>> Woman inspires us to great things, and prevents us from achieving them. - Dumas

>>The great question... which I have not been able to answer... is, "What does a woman want?" - Sigmund Freud

>>I had some words with my wife; and she had some paragraphs with me. - Unknown

>>"Some people ask the secret of our long marriage. We take time to go to a restaurant two times a week. A little candlelight, dinner, soft music and dancing. She goes Tuesdays, I go Fridays."
- Henny Youngman

>>"I don't worry about terrorism. I was married for two years." - Sam Kinison

>>"There's a way of transferring funds that is even faster than electronic banking. It's called marriage." - James Holt McGavran

>>"I've had bad luck with both my wives. The first one left me and the second one didn't."
- Patrick Murray

>>Two secrets to keep your marriage brimming: 1. Whenever you're wrong, admit it, 2. Whenever you're right, shut up. - Ogden Nash

>>The most effective way to remember your wife's birthday is to forget it once... - Unknown

>>You know what I did before I married? Anything I wanted to. - Henny Youngman

>>My wife and I were happy for twenty years. Then we met. - Rodney Dangerfield

>>A good wife always forgives her husband when she's wrong. - Milton Berle

>>Marriage is the only war where one sleeps with the enemy. - Unknown

First Guy (proudly): "My wife's an angel!"
Second Guy: "You're lucky, mine's still alive."

Have A nice day...

HOW WOMAN LOOK LIKE.....

A woman was walking down the street when she was accosted by a particularly dirty and shabby-looking homeless woman who asked her for a couple of dollarsfor dinner.

The woman took out her bill fold, extracted ten dollars and asked, “If I giveyou this money, will you buy some wine with it instead of dinner?”

“No, I had to stop drinking years ago?”, the homeless woman replied.

“Will you use it to go shopping instead of buying food?” the woman asked“No, I don’t waste time shopping?”, the homeless woman said.

“I need to spend all my time trying to stay alive.”

“Will you spend this at a beauty salon instead of food?” the woman asked.

“Are you NUTS?” replied the homeless woman. “I haven’t had my hair donein 20 years!”

“Well,” said the woman, “I’m not going to give you the money. Instead,I’m going to take you out for dinner with my hubby and myself tonight.

The homeless woman was astounded. “Won’t your husband be furious with youfor doing that? I know I’m dirty, and I probably smell pretty disgusting.”

The woman replied, “That’s Okay. It’s important for him to see what awoman looks like after she has given up shopping, hair appointments and wine.”

Ahmedabad Blast

Friends Forever

Together forever until the end

Facing the worst with my very best friend

To count on for comfort with a hand to guide Standing forever side by side

Problems arise but disappear

Whenever I see that you’re near

Laughter, sorrow, secrets, to share

Always showing your love and you’re care

When in doubt my saddening will stay

Until you’re there with a kind word to say

Facing the future until the end

Standing together forever friends

Why should the wedding ring be worn on the fourth finger?

Why should the wedding ring be worn on the fourth finger?There is a beautiful and convincing explanation given by the Chinese.....

Thumb represents your Parents
Second (Index) finger represents your Siblings
Middle finger represents your-Self
Fourth (Ring) finger represents your Life Partner& the
Last (Little) finger represents your children

Firstly, open your palms (face to face), bend the middle fingers and hold them together - back to backSecondly, open and hold the remaining three fingers and the thumb - tip to tip(As shown in the figure below):

Now, try to separate your thumbs (representing the parents)..., they will open, because your parents are not destined to live with you lifelong, and have to leave you sooner or later.

Please join your thumbs as before and separate your Index fingers (representing siblings)... ., they will also open, because your brothers and sisters will have their own families and will have to lead their own separate lives..

Now join the Index fingers and separate your Little fingers (representing your children)... ., they will open too, because the children also will get married and settle down on their own some day.

Finally, join your Little fingers, and try to separate your Ring fingers (representing your spouse).You will be surprised to see that you just CANNOT....., because Husband & Wife have to remain together all their lives - through thick and thin!!

Do try this out......... ....

Value of parents...

An 80 year old man was sitting on the sofa in his house along with his 45 years old highly educated son. Suddenly a crow perched on their window. The Father asked his Son, "What is this?" The Son replied "It is a crow"..

After a few minutes, the Father asked his Son the 2nd time, "What is this?" The Son said "Father, I have just now told you "It's a crow". After a little while, the old Father again asked his Son the 3rd time, What is this?" At this time some ex-press ion of irritation was felt in the Son's tone when he said to his Father with a rebuff. "It's a crow, a crow". A little after, the Father again asked his Son t he 4th time, "What is this?" This time the Son shouted at his Father, "Why do you keep asking me the same question again and again, although I have told you so many times 'IT IS A CROW'. Are you not able to understand this?"

A little later the Father went to his room and came back with an old tattered diary, which he had maintained since his Son was born. On opening a page, he asked his Son to read that page. When the son read it, the following words were written in the diary :- "Today my little son aged three was sitting with me on the sofa, when a crow was sitting on the window.

My Son asked me 23 times what it was, and I replied to him all 23 times that it was a Crow. I hugged him lovingly each time h e asked me the same question again and again for 23 times. I did not at all feel irritated I rather felt affection for my innocent child". While the little child asked him 23 times "What is this", the Father had felt no irritation in replying to the same question all 23 times and when today the Father asked his Son the same question just 4 times, the Son felt irritated and annoyed.

So.. If your parents attain old age, do not repulse them or look at them as a burden, but speak to them a gracious word, be cool, obedient, humble and kind to them. Be considerate to your parents. From today say this aloud, "I want to see my parents happy forever. They have cared for me ever since I was a little child. They have always showered their selfless love on me.
They crossed all mountains and valleys without seeing the storm and heat to make me a person presentable in the society today".

Say a prayer to God, "I will serve my old parents in the BEST way. I will say all good and kind words to my dear parents, no matter how they behave.

What is Software testing?

Quotes by Famous People - Les Brown

• Les Brown believes that what you do today will determine what your tomorrows will bring.

• “You are molding your tomorrow based on what you do today,” he says. “You can determine what your future holds based on how much time and energy you spend working on yourself now. Find out what it is you want, and go after it as if your life depends on it. Why? Because it does,” says Brown.

• "One of the most essential things you need to do for yourself is to choose a goal that is important to you. Perfection does not exist -- you can always do better and you can always grow."

• "Life has no limitations, except the ones you make."

• "Get your ideas on paper and study them. Do not let them go to waste!"

• "You must take action now that will move you towards your goals. Develop a sense of urgency in your life."

• "You gotta be hungry!"

• "Don't let the negativity given to you by the world disempower you. Instead give to yourself that which empowers you."

• "Forgive yourself for your faults and your mistakes and move on."

• "You don't get in life what you want; you get in life what you are."

• "One of the most essential things you need to do for yourself is to choose a goal that is important to you. Perfection does not exist -- you can always do better and you can always grow."

• "Shoot for the moon. Even if you miss, you'll land among the stars."

• "You are never too old to set another goal or to dream a new dream."

• "You cannot expect to achieve new goals or move beyond your present circumstances unless you change."

• "Change is difficult but often essential to survival."

• "When you face your fear, most of the time you will discover that it was not really such a big threat after all. We all need some form of deeply rooted, powerful motivation -- it empowers us to overcome obstacles so we can live our dreams."

• "Accept responsibility for your life. Know that it is you who will get you where you want to go, no one else."

• "Review your goals twice every day in order to be focused on achieving them. When you face your fear, most of the time you will discover that it was not really such a big threat after all. We all need some form of deeply rooted, powerful motivation -- it empowers us to overcome obstacles so we can live our dreams."

• "Don't let the negativity given to you by the world disempower you. Instead give to yourself that which empowers you."

• "It's important to me that money not be important to me."

• When you want something, you have to be willing to pay your dues."

• "If you view all the things that happen to you, both good and bad, as opportunities, then you operate out of a higher level of consciousness."

• You cannot be wimpy out there on the dream-seeking trail. Dare to break through barriers, to find your own path."

• "Other people's opinion of you does not have to become your reality."

• "If you view all the things that happen to you, both good and bad, as opportunities, then you operate out of a higher level of consciousness."

• "If you take responsibility for yourself you will develop a hunger to accomplish your dreams."

• "All of us need to grow continuously in our lives."

• "Honor your commitments with integrity."

• "In day-to-day commerce, television is not so much interested in the business of communications as in the business of delivering audiences to advertisers. People are the merchandise, not the shows. The shows are merely the bait."

• "Someone's sitting in the shade today because someone planted a tree a long time ago."

• "We must look for ways to be an active force in our own lives. We must take charge of our own destinies, design a life of substance and truly begin to live our dreams."

• "Anytime you suffer a setback or disappointment, put your head down and plow ahead."

• "When you want something, you have to be willing to pay your dues."

• "Help others achieve their dreams and you will achieve yours."

• "Live out of your imagination instead of out of your memory."

• "There are winners, there are losers and there are people who have not yet learned how to win."

• "Some people would rather get even instead of get ahead."

• "Your goals are the road maps that guide you and show you what is possible for your life."

• "You cannot be wimpy out there on the dream-seeking trail. Dare to break through barriers, to find your own path."

• "Character may be manifested in the great moments, but it is made in the small ones."

• "You must see your goals clearly and specifically before you can set out for them. Hold them in your mind until they become second nature."

• "The only limits to the possibilities in your life tomorrow are the buts you use today."

• "Review your goals twice every day in order to be focused on achieving them."

• "Change is difficult but often essential to survival."

• "Goals help you channel your energy into action."

• "I believe that life is a journey, often difficult and sometimes incredibly cruel, but we are well equipped for it if only we tap into our talents and gifts and allow them to blossom."

• "If you don't program yourself, life will program you."

Story of a Motivational Speaker

Les Brown, Biography
As a renowned public speaker, author and television personality, Les Brown has risen to national prominence by delivering a high energy message which tells people how to shake off mediocrity and live up to their greatness. It is a message Les Brown has learned from his own life and one he is helping others apply to their lives.

Born a twin in low-income Liberty City in Miami, Florida, Les and his twin brother, Wes, were adopted when they were six weeks old by Mrs. Mamie Brown, a single woman who had very little education and financial means, but a very big heart. As a child his inattention to school work, his restless energy and the failure of his teachers to recognize his real potential resulted in him being mislabeled as a slow learner. The label and the stigma stayed with Les damaging his self-esteem to such an extent that it took several years to overcome.

Unending Self-Education

Les has had no formal education past high school, but with persistence and determination he has initiated and continued a process of unending self-education which has distinguished him as an authority on human potential. Les Brown's passion to learn and his hunger to realize greatness in himself and others helped him to achieve greatness. He rose from a hip-talkin morning DJ to broadcast manager; from community activist to community leader; from political commentator to 3-term legislator; and from a banquet and nightclub emcee to premier keynote speaker.

In 1986, Les entered the public speaking arena on a full-time basis and formed his own company, Les Brown Unlimited, Inc. The company provides motivational tapes and materials, workshops, and personal/professional development programs aimed at individuals, companies, and organizations.

Award Winning Speaker

In 1989, Les Brown was the recipient of the National Speakers Association's highest honor: The Council of Peers Award of Excellence. In addition, he was selected one of America's Top Five Speakers for 1992 by Toastmasters international.
In 1990, Les recorded his first in a series of speech presentations entitled "You Deserve" with Les Brown, was awarded a Chicago-area Emmy and became the leading fund-raising program of its kind for pledges to PBS stations nationwide.

Acclaimed Author

Les Brown is not only an internationally recognized speaker and CEO of Les Brown Unlimited, Inc., he is also the author of the highly acclaimed and successful book, Live Your Dreams, and former host of The Les Brown Show, a nationally syndicated daily television talk show which focused on solutions rather than problems.

Les Brown is one of the nation's leading authorities in understanding and stimulating human potential, utilizing powerful delivery and newly emerging insights to teach, inspire and channel people to new levels of achievement.

Impressive illusion

More than just a photomosaic, each individual face is a work of art itself, seemingly tailored to enhance the illusion of the larger picture, without sacrificing their individual beauty. Really impressive.

ISTQB Question Answer Mock Exam- 6

1. Which of the following is true
a. Testing is the same as quality assurance
b. Testing is a part of quality assurance
c. Testing is not a part of quality assurance
d. Testing is same as debugging

2. Why is testing necessary?
a. Because testing is good method to make there are not defects in the software
b. Because verification and validation are nto enough to get to know the quality of the
software
c. Because testing measures the quality of the software system and helps to increase the
quality
d. Because testing finds more defects than reviews and inspections.

3. Integration testing has following characteristics
I. It can be done in incremental manner
II. It is always done after system testing
III. It includes functional tests
IV. It includes non-functional tests
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I is correct
c. I, III and IV are correct
d. I, II and IV are correct

4. A number of critical bugs are fixed in software. All the bugs are in one module, related to reports. The test manager decides to do regression testing only on the reports module.
a. The test manager should do only automated regression testing.
b. The test manager is justified in her decision because no bug has been fixed in other
modules
c. The test manager should only do confirmation testing. There is no need to do regression testing
d. Regression testing should be done on other modules as well because fixing one module
may affect other modules

5. Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools?
a. Static analysis tools are used only by developers
b. Compilers may offer some support for static analysis
c. Static analysis tools help find failures rather than defects
d. Static analysis tools require execution of the code to analyze the coverage

6. In a flight reservation system, the number of available seats in each plane model is an input. A plane may have any positive number of available seats, up to the given capacity of the plane. Using Boundary Value analysis, a list of available – seat values were generated. Which of the following lists is correct?
a. 1, 2, capacity -1, capacity, capacity plus 1
b. 0, 1, capacity, capacity plus 1
c. 0, 1, 2, capacity plus 1, a very large number
d. 0, 1, 10, 100, capacity, capacity plus one

7. For the code fragment given below, which answer correctly represents minimum tests required for statement and branch coverage respectively?
Discount rate=1;
Fare = 1000;
If ((person == “senior citizen”) and (“travel month = January”))
Bonuspoints = 100+Bonuspoints
If (class==”first”)
discountRate = .5;
Fare = fare * discountRate;
a. Statement Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 2
b. Statement Coverage = 2, Branch Coverage = 2
c. Statement Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 3
d. Statement Coverage = 2, Branch Coverage = 4

8. Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools
a. They help you find defects rather than failures
b. They are used by developers only
c. They require compilation of code
d. They are useful only for regulated industries

9. Acme Inc. decides to use functional test execution automation tool for testing GUI of their product. The GUI is expected to change frequently. Acme Inc. has put some of the manual testers through a 3 day training program on how to use the tool. Which of the following is likely to be true?
a. Automation is likely to fail because of frequent changes and lack of experience
b. Automation is likely to fail because of GUI automation is not the right way to automate
c. Automation is likely to succeed because automation is very useful for frequent changes
d. Automation is likely to succeed because the team has been trained on tool.

10. In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing. Which of the following sentences describes one of these basic principles?
a. Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools
b. With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the
quality of a product than with manual testing
c. For a software system, it is not possible, under normal conditions, to test all input and
output combinations.
d. A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free.

11. Which of the following statements contains a valid goal for a functional test set?
a. A goal is that no more failures will result from the remaining defects
b. A goal is to find as many failures as possible so that the cause of the failures can be
identified and fixed
c. A goal is to eliminate as much as possible the causes of defects
d. A goal is to fulfil all requirements for testing that are defined in the project plan.

12. In system testing...
a. .. Both functional and non-functional requirements are to be tested
b. ... Only functional requirements are tested; non-functional requirements are validated in
a review
c. ... Only non-functional requirements are tested; functional requirements are validated in
a review
d. ... Only requirements which are listed in the specification document are to be tested

13. Which of the following activities differentiate a walkthrough from a formal review?
a. A walkthrough does not follow a defined process
b. For a walkthrough individual preparation by the reviewers is optional
c. A walkthrough requires meeting
d. A walkthrough finds the causes of failures, while formal review finds the failures

14. Why does the boundary value analysis provide good test cases?
a. Because it is an industry standard
b. Because errors are frequently made during programming of the different cases near the
‘edges’ of the range of values
c. Because only equivalence classes that are equal from a functional point of view are
considered in the test cases
d. Because the test object is tested under maximal load up to its performance limits

15. Which of the following list contains only non-functional tests?
a. Interoperability (compatibility) testing, reliability testing, performance testing
b. System testing, performance testing
c. Load testing, stress testing, component testing, portability testing
d. Testing various configurations, beta testing, load testing

16. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a software product to be developed. Which of these risks is an example of a product risk?
a. Not enough qualified testers to complete the planned tests
b. Software delivery is behind schedule
c. Threat to a patient’s life
d. 3rd party supplier does not supply as stipulated

17. Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution?
a. Number of detected defects, testing cost;
b. Number of residual defects in the test object.
c. Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases
prepared
d. Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed

18. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Static analysis tools produce statistics during program execution
b. Configuration management systems allow us to provide accurate defect statistics of
different configurations
c. Stress testing tools examine the behaviour of the test object at or beyond full load
d. Performance measurement tools can be used in all phases of software life-cycle

19. What makes an inspection different from other review types?
a. It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit criteria and checklists
b. It is led by the author of the document to be inspected
c. It can only be used for reviewing design and code
d. It is led by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement

20. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: An
integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15
a. Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15
b. Negative numbers, 1 through 15, above 15
c. Less than 1, 1 through 14, more than 15
d. Less than 0, 1 through 14, 15 and more

21. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: Paying with credit cards shall be possible with Visa, Master and Amex cards only.
a. Visa, Master, Amex;
b. Visa, Master, Amex, Diners, Keycards, and other option
c. Visa, Master, Amex, any other card, no card
d. No card, other cards, any of Visa – Master – Amex

22. Which of the following techniques are black box techniques?
a. State transition testing, code testing, agile testing
b. Equivalence partitioning, state transition testing, decision table testing
c. System testing, acceptance testing, equivalence partitioning
d. System integration testing, system testing, decision table testing

23. A defect management system shall keep track of the status of every defect registered and enforce the rules about changing these states. If your task is to test the status tracking, which method would be best?
a. Logic-based testing
b. Use-case-based testing
c. State transition testing
d. Systematic testing according to the V-model

24. If a program is tested and 100% condition coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?
a. 100% branch coverage
b. 100% condition coverage and 100% statement coverage
c. Equivalence class and boundary value coverage
d. No other white box coverage criterion is guaranteed to be fulfilled 100%

25. This part of a program is given:-
WHILE (condition A) Do B
END WHILE
How many decisions should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% decision coverage?
a. 2
b. Indefinite
c. 1
d. 4

26. Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?
a. Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the
testware and the test object
b. Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change
control board
c. Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration management
d. Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools

27. What test items should be put under configuration management?
a. The test object, the test material and the test environment
b. The problem reports and the test material
c. Only the test object. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing
d. The test object and the test material

28. Why is successful test execution automation difficult?
a. Because the tools for automated testing require too much effort for learning
b. Because the maintenance of the test system is difficult
c. Because the test robot tools are restricted in their ability to recognize outputs
d. Because the test robot needs to be supported by a test management.

29. Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a software product?
(I) The project had incomplete procedures for configuration management.
(II) The time schedule to develop a certain component was cut.
(III) the specification was unclear
(IV) Use of the code standard was not followed up
(V) The testers were not certified
a. (I) and (II) are correct
b. (I) through (IV) are correct
c. (III) through (V) are correct
d. (I), (II) and (IV) are correct

30. Which of the following is most often considered as components interface bug?
a. For two components exchanging data, one component used metric units, the other one
used British units
b. The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structure
c. The messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding the
input error cause
d. Under high load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to

31. Which of the following project inputs influence testing?
(I) contractual requirements
(II) legal requirements
(III) Industry standards
(IV) application risk
(V) project size
a. (I) through (III) are correct
b. All alternatives are correct
c. (II) and (V) are correct
d. (I), (III) and (V) are correct

32. If a program is tested and 100% branch coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?
a. 100% Equivalence class coverage
b. 100% Condition coverage and 100% Statement coverage
c. 100% Statement coverage
d. 100% Multiple condition coverage

33. This part of a program is given:-
WHILE (condition A) Do B
END WHILE
How many paths should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% path coverage?
a. One
b. Indefinite
c. Two
d. Four

34. What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?
a. To specify when to stop the testing activity
b. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
c. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
d. To know when a specific test has finished its execution

35. Which of the following items need not to be given in an incident report?
a. The version number of the test object
b. Test data and used environment
c. Identification of the test case that failed
d. The location and instructions on how to correct the fault

36. V-Model is:

a. A software development model that illustrates how testing activities integrate with
software development phases
b. A software life-cycle model that is not relevant for testing
c. The official software development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQB
d. A testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system and acceptance phases

37. Why is incremental integration preferred over “big bang” integration?
a. Because incremental integration has better early defects screening and isolation ability
b. Because “big bang” integration is suitable only for real time applications
c. Incremental integration is preferred over “Big Bang Integration” only for “bottom up”
development model
d. Because incremental integration can compensate for weak and inadequate component
testing

38. Maintenance testing is:
a. Testing management
b. Synonym of testing the quality of service
c. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software
d. Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor

39. A test engineer is testing a Video Player (VCR), and logs the following report:
Title: Fast Forward stops after 2 minutes. It happens every time
Expected result: Fast forward continues till the end of the tape
Severity: High
Priority: Urgent
What important information did the engineer leave out?
a. Identification (Software and hardware) of the VCR
b. Actual result
c. History of the report
d. Ideas for the test case improvement

40. Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?
a. As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide what will be the most effective way to test the project on hand.
b. Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project
c. A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule
the test-cycles
d. Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme
cases injury and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place.

Answers:

1(B),2(C),3 (C),4(D),5(B),6 (B),7(A) (Not sure),8 (A),9 (A) (Not sure),10(C),11(B),12(A),13(B),14 (B),15(C),16(C),17(D),18(C),19(A),20(A),21(D) (Not sure),22(B),23(C),24(B),25(A),26(A) (Not sure)27(A),28(B) (Not sure),29(B),30(A),31(B),32(B),33(C),34(A),35(D),36(A),37(A),38(C),39(B),40(D) (Not Sure).

Creative Touch

On the first day, as President Abraham Lincoln entered to give his inaugral address, just in the middle, one man stood up. He was a rich aristocrat. He said , " Mr. Lincoln, you should not forget that your father used to make shoes for my family". And the whole Senate laughed; they thought they had made a fool of Abraham Lincoln.

But Lincoln - and that type of people are made of a totally different mettle, Lincoln looked at the man and said, "Sir I know that my father used to make shoes in your house for your family, and there will be many others here...because the way he made shoes; nobody else can. He was a creator. His shoes were not just shoes, he poured his whole soul in it. I want to ask you, have you any complaint? Because I know how to make shoes myself; if you have any complaint I can make another pair of shoes. But as far as I know, nobody has ever complained about my fahter's shoes. He was a genius, a great creator and I am proud of my father".

The whole Senate was struck dumb. Tjey could not understand what kind of man Abraham Lincoln was. He had made shoe making an art, a creativity. And he was proud because his father did the job so well that not even a single complaint had ever been heard.

It does not matter what you do. What matters is how you do it - of our own accord, with your own vision, with your own love. Then whatever you touch becomes gold.

How Zephyr Works?

Zephyr is a set of programs that sends messages between users.

• When a message arrives for you, a window is created in the upper-left corner of your screen(by default), and the message is displayed there.
• Once you have read the message, you move the mouse cursor into the window and click on any button, and (poof!) the window goes away.
• Additional information about Zephyr can be found in An Inessential Guide to Zephyr, also published by the SIPB.
• Watch Online Video
  http://media.yourzephyr.com/videos/company/zephyr_quick_intro/zephyr_quick_intro.html

Want to learn Ruby Online ???

Ruby is the interpreted scripting language for quick and easy object-oriented programming. It has many features to process text files and to do system management tasks (as in Perl). It is simple, straight-forward, extensible, and portable.It's totally free, which means not only free of charge, but also freedom to use, copy, modify, and distribute it.

Online Video.

http://showmedo.com/videos/video?name=1200000&fromSeriesID=120

Try this link ...you can learn ruby. A hand-on tutorial

http://tryruby.hobix.com/

ISTQB Foundation Level Mock Exam-5

1.An input field takes the yrear of birth between 1900 and 2004.
The boundary values of testing this field are
a. 0,1900,2004,2005
b. 1900, 2004
c. 1899,1900,2004,2005
d. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

2.Which one of this following are non-functional testing methods?
a.System testing
b.Usability testing
c.Performance testing
d.Both b & c.

3. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regrassion test?
a. Data testerb.
b. Boundary testerc.
c.apture/Playbackd.
d.Output comparator.

4. Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
a. Statement Coverage
b. Pole Coverage
c. Condition Coverage
d. Path Coverage

5. Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
a. Functionality
b. Usability
c. Supportability
d. Maintainability

6. To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above

7. Boundary value testing
a. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
b. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
c. Tests combinations of input circumstances
d. Is used in white box testing strategy

8. Pick the best definition of quality
a. Quality is job one
b. Zero defects
c. Conformance to requirements
d. Work as designed

9. Fault Masking is
a. Error condition hiding another error condition
b. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
c. Masking a fault by developer
d. Masking a fault by a tester

10. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :
a. Lack of technical documentation
b. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
c. Lack of training
d. Lack of Objectivity

11. During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?
a. When the code is complete.
b. When the design is complete.
c. When the software requirements have been approved.
d. When the first code module is ready for unit testing

12. In a review meeting a moderator is a person who
a. Takes minutes of the meeting
b. Mediates between people
c. Takes telephone calls
d. Writes the documents to be reviewed

13. Given the Following program
IF X <>
ELSE IF Y >= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END
McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

14. How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other :
-…………
if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)then
statement 3
fi
…………
a. 2 Test Cases
b. 3 Test Cases
c. 4 Test Cases
d. Not achievable

15. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a. Requirements
b. Design
c. Code
d. Decision table

16. “How much testing is enough?”
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. This question is easy to answer
c. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
d. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

17. A common test technique during component test is
a. Statement and branch testing
b. Usability testing
c. Security testing
d. Performance testing

18. Statement Coverage will not check for the following
a. Missing Statements
b. Unused Branches
c. Dead Code
d. Unused Statement

19. Independent Verification & Validation is
a. Done by the Developer
b. Done by the Test Engineers
c. Done By Management
d. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence

20. Code Coverage is used as a measure of what ?
a. Defects
b. Trends analysis
c. Test Effectiveness
d. Time Spent Testing

Answers:
1(c), 2(d), 3(c), 4(b), 5(c), 6(b), 7(b), 8(c), 9(a), 10(d), 11(c), 12(b), 13(b), 14(a), 15(a), 16(c), 17(a), 18(a), 19(d), 20(c)

ISTQB Foundation Level Mock Exam-4

1.Software testing activities should start
a. as soon as the code is written
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle

2.Faults found by users are due to:
a. Poor quality software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing

3.What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release

4. which of the following statements is not true
a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible

5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:
a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above

6.In which order should tests be run?
a. the most important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of

7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?
a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
d. none of the above

8. Which is not true-The black box tester
a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses

9. A test design technique is
a. a process for selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done

10. Testware(test cases, test dataset)
a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released
software system

11. An incident logging system
a only records defects
b is of limited value
c is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.

12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:
a. reducing test time
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say

13. Coverage measurement
a. is nothing to do with testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing

14. When should you stop testing?
a. when time for testing has run out.
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
d. when no faults have been found by the tests run

15. Which of the following is true?
a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.

16. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?
a. how well you know a particular technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique

17. If the pseudocode below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?
If x=3 then
Display_messageX;
If y=2 then
Display_messageY;
Else
Display_messageZ;
Else
Display_messageZ;
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

18. Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100% branch/decision coverage?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

19 Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?
a. State-Transition
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security

20. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?
a. State analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis

21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2

22.which of the following is the component test standard?
a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2

23 which of the following statements are true?
a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.

24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down

25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?
a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing

26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test

27. Which of the following is a static test?
a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test

28. Which of the following is the odd one out?
a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional

29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:
values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected
which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22

30.Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21

Answers:
1(d),2(b),3(d),4(c),5(d),6(a),7(c),8(b),9(a),10(a),11(c),12(a),13(b),14(c),15(b),16(b),17(c),18(c),19(a),20(c),21(b),22(d),23(c),24(a),25(b),26(d),27(a),28(d),29(c),30(b).

ISTQB Foundation Level Mock Exam-3

1 When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake

2 Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says

a) v & w are true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true

3 IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification
4 Testing should be stopped when:

a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested

5 Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:
a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

6 Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort

a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

7 Non-functional system testing includes:
a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
e) testing for functions that should not exist

8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access

9 Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

10 What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing

11 Consider the following statements
i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test

a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

12 Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:
Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print “P Large”
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

13 Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start “outlook”
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

14 Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print “Error”
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

15 Consider the following:
Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword

a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3

16 The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
e) Search the internet

17 When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

18 What can static analysis NOT find?
a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable (“dead”) code
c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound violations

19 Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:
a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value analysis

20 Beta testing is:
a) Performed by customers at their own site
b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an independent test team:
i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data preparation

a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi

22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing for a business perspective
e) testing by an independent test team

23 Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:
a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

24 Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents

25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:
a) generating expected outputs
b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
d) recording test inputs
e) reading test values from a data file

26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing is
a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

27 Expected results are:
a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) never specified in advance
d) most useful when specified in advance
e) derived from the code

28 Test managers should not:
a) report on deviations from the project plan
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

29 Unreachable code would best be found using:
a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) a coverage tool
d) a test management tool
e) a static analysis tool

30 A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:
a) a dynamic analysis tool
b) a test execution tool
c) a debugging tool
d) a test management tool
e) a configuration management tool

31 What information need not be included in a test incident report:
a) how to fix the fault
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) severity, priority
e) the actual and expected outcomes

32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:
1. led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a trained moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit criteria

s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough

a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3

33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) requirements-based testing
d) usability testing
e) top-down integration testing

34 What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:
a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases
d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS7925-1
c) BS7925-2
d) ANSI/IEEE 829
e) ANSI/IEEE 729

36 The cost of fixing a fault:
a) Is not important
b) Increases as we move the product towards live use
c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
e) Can never be determined

37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard:
a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines

38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:
a) No, because they apply to development documentation
b) No, because they are normally applied before testing
c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
a) Measuring response time
b) Measuring transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) Simulating many users
e) Generating many transactions

40 Error guessing is best used
a) As the first approach to deriving test cases
b) After more formal techniques have been applied
c) By inexperienced testers
d) After the system has gone live
e) Only by end users


1(C),2(C),3(E),4(E),5(C),6(A),7(B),8(B),9(C),10(E),11(B),12(B),13(B),14(B),15(E),
16(C),17(B),18(C),19(C),20(A),21(B),22(D),23(A),24(D),25(A),26(A),27(D),28(C),29(A),
30(E),31(E),32(B),33(E),34(A),35(B),36(B),37(D),38(D),39(C),40(B)

Regrassion Testing	Retesting
1.

QTP Basic Que-Ans

1. What are the features and benefits of Quick Test Pro(QTP)?
1. Key word driven testing2. Suitable for both client server and web based application3. VB script as the script language4. Better error handling mechanism5. Excellent data driven testing features

2. How to handle the exceptions using recovery scenario manager in QTP?
You can instruct QTP to recover unexpected events or errors that occurred in your testing environment during test run. Recovery scenario manager provides a wizard that guides you through the defining recovery scenario. Recovery scenario has three steps1. Triggered Events2. Recovery steps3. Post Recovery Test-Run

3. What is the use of Text output value in QTP?
Output values enable to view the values that the application talks during run time. When parameterized, the values change for each iteration. Thus by creating output values, we can capture the values that the application takes for each run and output them to the data table.

4. How to use the Object spy in QTP 8.0 version?
There are two ways to Spy the objects in QTP1) Thru file toolbar: In the File ToolBar click on the last toolbar button (an icon showing a person with hat).2) Thru Object repository Dialog: In Objectrepository dialog click on the button “object spy…” In the Object spy Dialog click on the button showing hand symbol. The pointer now changes in to a hand symbol and we have to point out the object to spy the state of the object. If at all the object is not visible or window is minimized then hold the Ctrl button and activate the required window to and release the Ctrl button.

5. What is the file extension of the code file and object repository file in QTP?
File extension ofPer test object rep: filename.mtrShared Object rep: filename.tsrCode file extension id: script.mts

6. Explain the concept of object repository and how QTP recognizes objects?
Object Repository: displays a tree of all objects in the current component or in the current action or entire test( depending on the object repository mode you selected).we can view or modify the test object description of any test object in the repository or to add new objects to the repository.Quicktest learns the default property values and determines in which test object class it fits. If it is not enough it adds assistive properties, one by one to the description until it has compiled the unique description. If no assistive properties are available, then it adds a special Ordianl identifier such as objects location on the page or in the source code.

7. What are the properties you would use for identifying a browser and page when using descriptive programming?
“name” would be another property apart from “title” that we can use. ORWe can also use the property “micClass”.ex: Browser(”micClass:=browser”).page(”micClass:=page”)

8. What are the different scripting languages you could use when working with QTP?
You can write scripts using following languages:Visual Basic (VB), XML, JavaScript, Java, HTML
9. Tell some commonly used Excel VBA functions.
Common functions are:Coloring the cell, Auto fit cell, setting navigation from link in one cell to other saving

10. Explain the keyword createobject with an example.
Creates and returns a reference to an Automation objectsyntax: CreateObject(servername.typename [, location])Argumentsservername:Required. The name of the application providing the object.typename : Required. The type or class of the object to create.location : Optional. The name of the network server where the object is to be created.

11. Explain in brief about the QTP Automation Object Model.
Essentially all configuration and run functionality provided via the QuickTest interface is in some way represented in the QuickTest automation object model via objects, methods, and properties. Although a one-on-one comparison cannot always be made, most dialog boxes in QuickTest have a corresponding automation object, most options in dialog boxes can be set and/or retrieved using the corresponding object property, and most menu commands and other operations have corresponding automation methods. You can use the objects, methods, and properties exposed by the QuickTest automation object model, along with standard programming elements such as loops and conditional statements to design your program.

12. How to handle dynamic objects in QTP?
QTP has a unique feature called Smart Object Identification/recognition. QTP generally identifies an object by matching its test object and run time object properties. QTP may fail to recognize the dynamic objects whose properties change during run time. Hence it has an option of enabling Smart Identification, wherein it can identify the objects even if their properties changes during run time.Check out this: If QuickTest is unable to find any object that matches the recorded object description, or if it finds more than one object that fits the description, then QuickTest ignores the recorded description, and uses the Smart Identification mechanism to try to identify the object.While the Smart Identification mechanism is more complex, it is more flexible, and thus, if configured logically, a Smart Identification definition can probably help QuickTest identify an object, if it is present, even when the recorded description fails.
The Smart Identification mechanism uses two types of properties: Base filter properties - The most fundamental properties of a particular test object class; those whose values cannot be changed without changing the essence of the original object. For example, if a Web link’s tag was changed from to any other value, you could no longer call it the same object. Optional filter properties - Other properties that can help identify objects of a particular class as they are unlikely to change on a regular basis, but which can be ignored if they are no longer applicable.

13. What is a Run-Time Data Table? Where can I find and view this table?
In QTP, there is data table used, which is used at runtime.-In QTP, select the option View->Data table.-This is basically an excel file, which is stored in the folder of the test created, its name is Default.xls by default.

14. How does Parameterization and Data-Driving relate to each other in QTP?
To data driven we have to parameterize. i.e. we have to make the constant value as parameter, so that in each interaction(cycle) it takes a value that is supplied in run-time data table. Through parameterization only we can drive a transaction (action) with different sets of data. You know running the script with the same set of data several times is not suggested, and it’s also of no use.

15. What is the difference between Call to Action and Copy Action.?
Call to Action: The changes made in Call to Action, will be reflected in the original action (from where the script is called). But where as in Copy Action , the changes made in the script ,will not effect the original script(Action)

16. Explain the concept of how QTP identifies object.
During recording qtp looks at the object and stores it as test object. For each test object QT learns a set of default properties called mandatory properties, and look at the rest of the objects to check whether this properties are enough to uniquely identify the object. During test run, QTP searches for the run time objects that matches with the test object it learned while recording.

17. Differentiate the two Object Repository Types of QTP.
Object repository is used to store all the objects in the application being tested.Types of object repository: Per action and shared repository.In shared repository only one centralized repository for all the tests. where as in per action for each test a separate per action repository is created.

18. What the differences are and best practical application of Object Repository?
Per Action: For Each Action, one Object Repository is created.Shared: One Object Repository is used by entire application

19. Explain what the difference between Shared Repository and Per Action Repository
Shared Repository: Entire application uses one Object Repository , that similar to Global GUI Map file in WinRunnerPer Action: For each Action, one Object Repository is created, like GUI map file per test in WinRunner

20. Have you ever written a compiled module? If yes tell me about some of the functions that you wrote.
Sample answer (You can tell about modules you worked on. If your answer is Yes then You should expect more questions and should be able to explain those modules in later questions): I Used the functions for Capturing the dynamic data during runtime. Function used for Capturing Desktop, browser and pages.

21. Can you do more than just capture and playback?
Sample answer (Say Yes only if you worked on): I have done Dynamically capturing the objects during runtime in which no recording, no playback and no use of repository is done AT ALL.-It was done by the windows scripting using the DOM(Document Object Model) of the windows.

22. How to do the scripting. Are there any inbuilt functions in QTP? What is the difference between them? How to handle script issues?
Yes, there’s an in-built functionality called “Step Generator” in Insert->Step->Step Generator -F7, which will generate the scripts as you enter the appropriate steps.

23. What is the difference between check point and output value?
An output value is a value captured during the test run and entered in the run-time but to a specified location.EX:-Location in Data Table[Global sheet / local sheet]

24. How many types of Actions are there in QTP?
There are three kinds of actions:Non-reusable action -

• An action that can be called only in the test with which it is stored, and can be called only once.
• Reusable action - An action that can be called multiple times by the test with which it is stored (the local test) as well as by other tests
• .External action - A reusable action stored with another test. External actions are read-only in the calling test, but you can choose to use a local, editable copy of the Data Table information for the external action.

25. I want to open a Notepad window without recording a test and I do not want to use System utility Run command as well. How do I do this?
You can still make the notepad open without using the record or System utility script, just by mentioning the path of the notepad “( i.e. where the notepad.exe is stored in the system) in the “Windows Applications Tab” of the “Record and Run Settings window.

ISTQB Foundation Level Mock Test 2

Duration: 1 hour
Instructions:
1. Pass criteria will be 60%
2. No negative marking

1. COTS is known as
A. Commercial off the shelf software
B. Compliance of the software
C. Change control of the software
D. Capable off the shelf software

2. From the below given choices, which one is the ‘Confidence testing’
A. Sanity testing
B. System testing
C. Smoke testing
D. Regression testing

3. ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms of
A. The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the system
B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other means after wards
C. The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found by a test phase
D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system

4. ‘Be bugging’ is known as
A. Preventing the defects by inspection
B. Fixing the defects by debugging
C. Adding known defects by seeding
D. A process of fixing the defects by tester

5. An expert based test estimation is also known as
A. Narrow band Delphi
B. Wide band Delphi
C. Bespoke Delphi
D. Robust Delphi

6. When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as:
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Decision table
D. Hybrid analysis

7. All of the following might be done during unit testing except
A. Desk check
B. Manual support testing
C. Walkthrough
D. Compiler based testing

8. Find the Min number of tests to ensure that each statement is executed at least once
A. 5 B. 6 C. 4 D. 8

9. Which of the following characteristics is primarily associated with software reusability?
A. The extent to which the software can be used in other applications
B. The extent to which the software can be used by many different users
C. The capability of the software to be moved to a different platform
D. The capability of one system to be coupled with another system

10. Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact of proposed software modifications?
A. Baseline identification B. Configuration auditing
C. Change control D. Version control

11. Which of the following statements is true about a software verification and validation program?
I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.
II. It provides management with insights into the state of a software project.
III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.
IV. It is executed in parallel with software development activities.

A. I, II&III B.II, III&IV C.I, II&IV D.I, III&IV

12. Which of the following is a requirement of an effective software environment?
I. Ease of use
II. Capacity for incremental implementation
III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project
IV. Inclusion of advanced tools

A.I, II &III B.I, II &IV C.II, III&IV D.I, III&IV

13. A test manager wants to use the resources available for the automated testing of a web application. The best choice is
A. Test automater, web specialist, DBA, test lead
B. Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA
C. Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA
D. Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater

14. A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in the implementation phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be to
B. Establish a relationship with the customer
C. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan
D. Modify the project’ s organizational structure to meet the manager’ s management style
E. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace

15. Change X requires a higher level of authority than Change Y in which of the following pairs?
Change X Change Y
A. Code in development Code in production
B. Specifications during requirements analysis Specifications during systems test
C. Documents requested by the technical development group Documents requested by customers
D. A product distributed to several sites A product with a single user

16. Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system?
I. Record keeping
II. System design
III. Evaluation scheduling
IV. Error reporting

A.I, II&III B.II, III &IV C.I, III &IV D.I, II & IV

17. During the testing of a module tester ‘X’ finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it’s not a bug. What ‘X’ should do?
A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.
B. Retest the module and confirm the bug
C. Assign the same bug to another developer
D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility

18. The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during system testing is to
A. Find bugs in the program
B. Check the technical accuracy of the document
C. Ensure the ease of use of the document
D. Ensure that the program is the latest version

19. A type of integration testing in which software elements, hardware elements, or both are combined all at once into a component or an overall system, rather than in stages.
A. System Testing B. Big-Bang Testing
C. Integration Testing D. Unit Testing

20. In practice, which Life Cycle model may have more, fewer or different levels of development and testing, depending on the project and the software product. For example, there may be component integration testing after component testing, and system integration testing after system testing.

A. Water Fall Model B.V-Model
C. Spiral Model D. RAD Model

21. Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage? It can be applied to human input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing.
A. Error Guessing B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Decision Table testing D. Equivalence partitioning

22. There is one application, which runs on a single terminal. There is another application that works on multiple terminals. What are the test techniques you will use on the second application that you would not do on the first application?
A. Integrity, Response time B. Concurrency test, Scalability
C. Update & Rollback, Response time D. Concurrency test, Integrity

23. You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days after the due date. You can not change the resources(work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you will take to be able to finish the testing in time.
A. Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time.
B. Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occur
C. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing
D. Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided

24. Item transmittal report is also known as
A. Incident report B. Release note
C. Review report D. Audit report

25. Testing of software used to convert data from existing systems for use in replacement systems
A. Data driven testing B. Migration testing
C. Configuration testing D. Back to back testing

26. Big bang approach is related to
A. Regression testing B. Inter system testing
C. Re-testing D. Integration testing

27. Cause effect graphing is related to the standard
A. BS7799 B. BS 7925/2 C. ISO/IEC 926/1 D. ISO/IEC 2382/1

28. “The tracing of requirements for a test level through the layers of a test documentation” done by
A. Horizontal tracebility B. Depth tracebility
C. Vertical tracebility D. Horizontal & Vertical tracebilities

29. A test harness is a
A. A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing
B. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test
D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test

30. You are a tester for testing a large system. The system data model is very large with many attributes and there are a lot of inter dependencies with in the fields. What steps would you use to test the system and also what are the efforts of the test you have taken on the test plan
A. Improve super vision, More reviews of artifacts or program means stage containment of the defects.
B. Extend the test plan so that you can test all the inter dependencies
C. Divide the large system in to small modules and test the functionality
D. Test the interdependencies first, after that check the system as a whole

31. Change request should be submitted through development or program management. A change request must be written and should include the following criteria.
I. Definition of the change
II. Documentation to be updated
III. Name of the tester or developer
IV. Dependencies of the change request.

A. I, III and IV B. I, II and III C. II, III and IV D. I, II and IV

32. ‘Entry criteria’ should address questions such as
I. Are the necessary documentation, design and requirements information available that will allow testers to operate the system and judge correct behavior.
II. Is the test environment-lab, hardware, software and system administration support ready?
III. Those conditions and situations that must prevail in the testing process to allow testing to continue effectively and efficiently.
IV. Are the supporting utilities, accessories and prerequisites available in forms that testers can use

A. I, II and IV B. I, II and III C. I, II, III and IV D. II, III and IV.

33. “This life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks” This statement is best suited for
A. Water fall model B. Spiral model
C. Incremental model D. V-Model

34. The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug.
I. Phase injected
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed

A. I, II and III B. I, II and IV C. II, III and IV D. I, III and IV

35. One of the more daunting challenges of managing a test project is that so many dependencies converge at test execution. One missing configuration file or hard ware device can render all your test results meaning less. You can end up with an entire platoon of testers sitting around for days.
Who is responsible for this incident?
A. Test managers faults only
B. Test lead faults only
C. Test manager and project manager faults
D. Testers faults only

36. System test can begin when?
I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on the results to the system test phase entry meeting
II. The development team provides software to the test team 3 business days prior to starting of the system testing
III. All components are under formal, automated configuration and release management control

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

37. Test charters are used in ________ testing
A. Exploratory testing B. Usability testing
C. Component testing D. Maintainability testing

1 (A) ,2 (C), 3(A), 4(C),5(B), 6 (A), 7 (B),8 (B) ,9 (A) ,10 (C),11 (C) ,12 (A),13 (B),14 (B),15 (D),
16 (C) ,17 (D),18 (B),19 (B),20 (B) ,21 (D) , 22 (C), 23 (C), 24 (B) 25(B), 26 (D), 27 (B),28 (A) ,
29 (C), 30 (A) , 31 (D) , 32 (A), 33 (D) , 34 (B),35 (A), 36 (D) , 37 (A)